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October 22, 2014 / 28 Tishri, 5775
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The Law of Use of Force: the US or the UN?

Can interested state[s] intervene militarily to stop heinous crimes without the Security Council’s authorization?
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What if Russia and China [who had proven trend of opposing authorization to use of force in the history of the UN SC] can be convinced by the situation in Syria and agree at least not to block the authorization of military force [contrary to the wrong perception by the US]? Can we not be hopeful as evidenced by their recent decision making in the Libyan crisis? That is why the US must chill and wait on the Security Council decision making system before any unilateral military action. If not, what is the theoretical and institutional difference between “the US” and “the UN”?

About the Author: Henok G. Gabisa is a JSD/PhD Candidate and International Law Fellow and Researcher at Washington and Lee University School of Law in Lexington, Virginia.


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4 Responses to “The Law of Use of Force: the US or the UN?”

  1. Moshe Z. Matitya says:

    I saw the headline and thought, “Cool!”
    Then I noticed that it says “Use of Force”, not “Use of The Force”… :-(

  2. I saw the headline and thought, “Cool!”

    Then I noticed that it says “Use of Force”, not “Use of The Force”… :-(

  3. Alan Kardon says:

    Bottom line is- Barack Hussein does whatever he wants to do. So why are we part of the United Nations? Think about all of the money we save that can be put to better use.

  4. Its complicated Issu but I don't like Islamic people in any state.

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Can interested state[s] intervene militarily to stop heinous crimes without the Security Council’s authorization?

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